Hello all. First time posting, sorry to just 'parachute in'.
I have a question regarding pregnancy dates. I'm a male in his early twenties, and, as is perhaps the case with many guys my age, am no expert in the mysterious workings of a woman's body!
My situation is this: myself and a girl I work with had a one night stand mid-December last year. At some point the condom broke; however, I did not ejaculate. A few hours prior I masturbated, but in the intervening period I showered and must have urinated at least four times. I mention this because as I understand it: you cannot become pregnant from pre-ejaculate (Cowper's fluid) UNLESS there is leftover sperm hanging around from a previous ejaculation. Now seeing as I had ejaculated a few hours before sex this is a possibility; but I have also read that by urinating the man can clear the urethra of said sperm. Different sources seem to have different things to say about this, so any input would be greatly appreciated!
So life continues in its usual way, until I am contacted by the girl I work with with news that she is pregnant. She has a scan the next day, and, by working out some dates (more on that later), informs me that I am the father. I am obviously rather shocked, seeing as I did not ejaculate; she says she mentioned this to the doctor who told her that conceiving with Cowper's fluid is in fact very common. This is contrary to all I have read. Is this correct? Would a doctor make an assertion like this?
Anyway, irrespective of all that, I am somewhat confused by the dates (and here you will have to bear with me and my cluelessness). The night we slept together was 10th December. She showed me the print-out of her first scan, which took place on 10th February. The scan said 9 weeks, 4 days; a week is taken off to account for her period, which makes it 8 weeks, 4 days. This puts the date of conception at 12th December. Am I missing something here? As I said, I do apologise for my lack of expertise on the subject. I only delved into this whole dates issue because I suspect this girl to have been sleeping with at least one other man (like I said, we were not a couple).
Any insight would be hugely appreciated, I have tried talking to the mother but she is not very forthcoming with information and I feel a bit in the dark, to say the least. Let me also mention that I am not attempting to find an excuse to shirk my possible parental responsibility. I would just like to know if this child is indeed mine.
Thanks,
A.
I have a question regarding pregnancy dates. I'm a male in his early twenties, and, as is perhaps the case with many guys my age, am no expert in the mysterious workings of a woman's body!
My situation is this: myself and a girl I work with had a one night stand mid-December last year. At some point the condom broke; however, I did not ejaculate. A few hours prior I masturbated, but in the intervening period I showered and must have urinated at least four times. I mention this because as I understand it: you cannot become pregnant from pre-ejaculate (Cowper's fluid) UNLESS there is leftover sperm hanging around from a previous ejaculation. Now seeing as I had ejaculated a few hours before sex this is a possibility; but I have also read that by urinating the man can clear the urethra of said sperm. Different sources seem to have different things to say about this, so any input would be greatly appreciated!
So life continues in its usual way, until I am contacted by the girl I work with with news that she is pregnant. She has a scan the next day, and, by working out some dates (more on that later), informs me that I am the father. I am obviously rather shocked, seeing as I did not ejaculate; she says she mentioned this to the doctor who told her that conceiving with Cowper's fluid is in fact very common. This is contrary to all I have read. Is this correct? Would a doctor make an assertion like this?
Anyway, irrespective of all that, I am somewhat confused by the dates (and here you will have to bear with me and my cluelessness). The night we slept together was 10th December. She showed me the print-out of her first scan, which took place on 10th February. The scan said 9 weeks, 4 days; a week is taken off to account for her period, which makes it 8 weeks, 4 days. This puts the date of conception at 12th December. Am I missing something here? As I said, I do apologise for my lack of expertise on the subject. I only delved into this whole dates issue because I suspect this girl to have been sleeping with at least one other man (like I said, we were not a couple).
Any insight would be hugely appreciated, I have tried talking to the mother but she is not very forthcoming with information and I feel a bit in the dark, to say the least. Let me also mention that I am not attempting to find an excuse to shirk my possible parental responsibility. I would just like to know if this child is indeed mine.
Thanks,
A.
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